
I'm not asking if we should care about the well-being of our poorest citizens. We should. This is a more subtle question: Should we care about the size of the gap between the rich and poor?
If we succeed in raising the incomes of the poor, does it matter if incomes at the top are rising even faster, making us a more unequal society overall?
By coincidence, I was in Brazil in December while those giant Wall Street bonuses were being handed out. Brazil has one of the largest gaps between rich and poor on the planet. Having experienced that gap firsthand -- from the slums run by drug traffickers at one end to the lovely apartments with bulletproof doors at the other -- I'm convinced that income inequality does matter.
And that's why the Democrats raised the minimum wage.
Too bad the minimum wage affects rich suburban teenagers and Union contracts far more than it does actual poor people.
Another myth, Adam. Go get some data.
Moon - Teenagers do make up a huge chunk of the minimum wage workforce - though that's not to say that changes in it don't affect adults working for it more.
I did an explanatory article on the topic some time ago though I hesitate to draw Adam's eye to it as his economics background is stronger than mine.
Moon, if you are going to call something a myth, why not disprove it with some facts. Just calling it a myth does not make it so.
From the Department of Labor themselves:
Minimum wage workers tend to be young. About half of workers earning $5.15 or less were under age 25, and about one-fourth of workers earning at or below the minimum wage were age 16-19.
It is also a fact that many Union contracts call for pay rates that are based on multiples of the minimum wage.
Adam, you alleged it without any proof. The buden is on you to demonstrate it, not on me to disprove it. Your statement was:
minimum wage affects rich suburban teenagers and Union contracts far more than it does actual poor people.
The statistic you quote proves that they are mostly young, and many are teenagers. It says nothing about "rich suburban" (nor union contracts, although I am aware that many of these are indexed to the minumum wage, so save your fingertips).
Many of these young people are in poor families, working-poor and lower middle-class and have to work to contribute to household income and save for college, because both parents already work and still can't get by or provide everything their kids need. They are also single parent women on workfare programs working part-time and going to school to meet the requirements of the program.
As to helping union contract workers, so what?
"Rich suburban teenagers" don't work, they drive their parents BMW's to shopping malls and sneer at the kids who have to wait on them while marking time until their parents buy them a slot Yale. See, anyone can allege prejudices. I don't want to prove this point, I'm just reasoning by analogy here.
Killfile,
I read your article just now. Not bad, but limited in scope, as you mostly respond to the Moral Hazard argument. Unfortunately, most economic arguements, as does this, operate on the theoretcal level. When you get down to actual data, you find things aren't so neat. Just as an anecdotal rebuttal to all this, when you visit a McDonald's during the day, you don't find a lot of teenagers, you find a lot of young adults, mostly with limited english, trying to make a living.
As to the reduction of labor demand (i.e.; increasing unemployment), I haven't read anything recently but when I studied this for a Masters course and then again in my working life in the mid-80's when the minimum wage was being increased, the cost to the economy of the unemployment was minimal because most employers raise prices to cover the costs, and much of the actual unemploymenht caused was offset by the increase in demand from additional purchasing power. The real way to determine whether an increase in the minimum wage can be absorbed by the economy as a whole is to look at productivity. Wage increases in absence of productivity increaseses lead to inflation.
And as to Adam's economic expertise, I've read a number of his other posts and have not seen much evidence of it. This was my field of study in college, and while I'm rusty I'm not ignorant.
The most convenient statistic for measuring income inequality is called a Gini coefficient, which measures a country's distribution of income from 0 (absolute equality, with each person sharing the same amount of wealth) to 1 (absolute inequality, with one person controlling all of the nation's wealth).
I'm going to have to call this whole thing BS because it doesn't even recognize the difference between income and wealth. Hint, income is the money you are actively making, wealth is the assets that you currently hold. If a metric does not even understand the difference between income and wealth then the metric is not built off of solid economics.
from the slums run by drug traffickers at one end to the lovely apartments with bulletproof doors at the other -- I'm convinced that income inequality does matter.
I also like this part. This article assumes that an economy is inelastic. That for one person to earn one dollar then another person must be out of a dollar. That is far from how real economies function where wealth can actually be created. Making wealth does not require someone else losing wealth.
What matters is not the percentage of the pie you have, but the size of your slice. Comparing it to others is just getting caught up in "keeping up with the Jones" syndrome.
What matters is not the percentage of the pie you have, but the size of your slice. Comparing it to others is just getting caught up in "keeping up with the Jones" syndrome.
Doesn't this deny the notion of inflation? Without a currency pegged to Gold isn't a fiat economy based on percentage? Hell, even with Gold it is. Look at what happened to the Spanish economy during the earlier colonial period.
You might want to read up more on the Gini coefficient. It's a pretty well respected and regarded measure of income distribution. While it has its problems, the consideration of income rather than wealth is not often listed among them.
and regarded measure of income distribution.
Income isn't distributed, it's earned and created.
Doesn't this deny the notion of inflation?
That's why I used wealth instead of money. Inflation happens with currency, not with wealth.
What's better, person A has a cracker and person B has two crackers, or Person A has 50 crackers and person B has 500 crackers. The distribution is far more unequal in the second scenario, but I think most people would agree that Person A is more wealthy and better off in the second scenario regardless of income distribution.
If crackers were a currency that would be great. I believe, however, that the Gini coefficient deals in buying power, not just stacks of money.
From the Wikipedia description, it seems to be entirely money based. I think basing inequality on just money is a bad metric, because money when it all comes down to it really just doesn't exist. I think a better metric would be something resource based, because that is at least something more or less inelastic.
There was also a seed floating around a few days ago on how basing a Gini coefficient off of income tax returns, which is the usual method, is very distorted. Thanks to the million and one changes in our income tax system, what counts as income changes quite a lot. Income tax returns for the US also don't count much of welfare, so it makes the poor people look even poorer because social security, earned income tax credit and all that is not being added in.
Lorenz curve calculation suffers from the garbage in garbage out syndrome. Good solid measures of buying power still elude economists much to our chagrin but is sometimes compensated for by good looking theoretical models. So how unequal is income distribution in the United States? What curve looks good today, we can generate data for most values with a little work.
The largest flaw in the model is the choice of comparison points, that is income versus population. By itself it's really a meaningless measure. What we need to know is total wealth generated inside a period, then compare buying power relative to change in total wealth. That would be a far better measure of inequality instead of asymmetry.
Yes, but if you apply the crackers example to a whole society, the price of each cracker would drop so much that it could actually be better to be in the first scenario. It is called inflation, and wealth does have an impact on it. Wealth can be measured in money, in my opinion.
This is why I think some liberals are liberal. They don't have the firmest grip on economics.
Yes, but if you apply the crackers example to a whole society, the price of each cracker would drop so much that it could actually be better to be in the first scenario.
I used crackers not as an example of money but as an example of wealth. The point is not to trade the crackers for something else, crackers unlike money have intrinsic value, you can eat them. Assume that all there is in the world is crackers. In the first scenario, both people go hungry. In the second scenario, they both have enough for at least a snack. It doesn't matter how rich the rich person is as long as the poor person has enough to get by.
The key here is that the economy is not an inelastic pie. When someone takes a piece of the pie it does not have to take a piece away from someone else. The pie can grow. I'm not talking about money either. Of course you can print more money, but then my piece of pie is worth less. I mean actual wealth that is valuable regardless of its relation to others.
Think of it this way. Person A has a widget. Person B has five dollars. Person A values the widget at 4 dollars. Person B values the widget at 6 dollars. Person A trades the widget to person B for five dollars. The economy is now two dollars greater. Person A has five dollars but traded something worth four to him, so he is one dollar richer. Person B had five dollars and traded them for an item he values at six dollars and is thus a dollar richer. The economy grew by two dollars, because we started with items with 9 dollars to their owners and ended with items worth 11 dollars to their owners.
The economy can grow and shrink regardless of inflation and deflation.
But the crackers analogy only holds up if the crackers get smaller as time goes on due to cracker-flation. Over time a cracker that could have fed a family of four will turn into a bite-sized snack. you can sock $100 dollars in a mattress for 50 years, but at the end of that 50 years, your $100 isnt nearly the wealth it was when you started out.
That was my point, crackers don't have inflation. The whole point I am trying to make is about inflation-free wealth. Inflation affects money and currency, not actual wealth.
Adam is talking about crackers -- which if you want to think of as money you should think of as "crackers adjusted for inflation."
So it's assumed that 5 crackers in 1935 is the exact same thing as 5 crackers today.
Now admittedly the economy is doing better if everyone has more buying power and that's good. Assuming that improvement is applied according to the existing income distribution, however, the Gini coefficient shouldn't change. Why? Because the whole curve should move... including the 45 degree line.
The Gini coefficient therefore shouldn't respond mathematically to a universal elevation of the curves.
The distribution of income and wealth certainly does matter to our society. The inequality in the USA approaches that of a developing country. This is unfair and everybody knows it.
And, yes, this is political, as Bush tax breaks and even running huge deficits (funded by rich lenders) reinforces this.
The inequality in the USA approaches that of a developing country.
Where would you rather be poor, the USA or a developing country? That's my point. The inequality doesn't matter so much as the actual wealth of the bottom rung. Who cares if everyone has equal wealth if everyone is also living in huts with no running water. However being poor in a nation where there average poor person owns more than one tv, a car and a house (with a mortgage, but even lower high class people have mortgages) is not that bad at all.
Think of it this way. Person A has a widget. Person B has five dollars. Person A values the widget at 4 dollars. Person B values the widget at 6 dollars. Person A trades the widget to person B for five dollars. The economy is now two dollars greater. Person A has five dollars but traded something worth four to him, so he is one dollar richer. Person B had five dollars and traded them for an item he values at six dollars and is thus a dollar richer. The economy grew by two dollars, because we started with items with 9 dollars to their owners and ended with items worth 11 dollars to their owners.
I think the widget is worth 5 dollars, the agreed value. Economy did not grow at all in this example. They had and have 10 dollars in total. can person B sell it for 6 dollars? If so then person A was just stupid for selling it for 5. If not, his "intrinsic" 6 dollars are meaningless. It doesn't matter what you intrinsically evaluate something if the market is not willing to pay that much.
How exactly can an economy grow without investment (taking from somewhere and putting somewhere else)? I don't quite see how the pie can be elastic. How exactly do you suggest we can increase the amount of wealth in the world? If it is that easy maybe we can solve the world's problems in this forum.
How exactly can an economy grow without investment (taking from somewhere and putting somewhere else)?
Increasing the amount of things (objects or services) that hold value to other people in a period of time. That is accomplished by having more people (usually) and having more productive people. Most people are at least somewhat productive without outside influence to not be (government welfare) and thus create something of value which never existed before thus an increase in all things of value aka growth in the overall pie of the economy. The trick behind eliminating poverty is in distribution and measurement. Poverty means people who need or usually in the US want more than they have as a fraction of what other people have. A moving target in a growing economy for sure.
I think the widget is worth 5 dollars, the agreed value.
This is where you are wrong. There is no objective "worth" to any object. People value everything differently, even money. Some people are willing to do a job for $10 per hour. Others would not be. This is one of the most basic aspects of economics, worth or economic utility is entirely relative.
It doesn't matter what you intrinsically evaluate something if the market is not willing to pay that much.
Here's a hint. There really isn't a market. It's just an entirely intangible idea. We use the term market because most transactions are not one on one negotiations. Most sellers list an item at a price and if they purchaser values it greater than he buys it, if not then he doesn't.
Here's another example. How much do you value a Hornus Wagner rookie card at? If you owned it what would be the minimum price you would sell it for? If someone else values it higher and buys it from you for more than you wanted but less than he wanted are you both not holding something more valuable after the transaction than before?
That is the entire point of trade and economics. People value goods and services differently so they are willing to trade with each other to maximize the value (to them) of what they own.
That is accomplished by having more people (usually) and having more productive people. Most people are at least somewhat productive without outside influence to not be (government welfare) and thus create something of value which never existed before thus an increase in all things of value aka growth in the overall pie of the economy.
Yes, but people are not productive for free, so you need to take money from somewhere else in the pie to get the new something of value. Of course you can explore 3rd world countries people to work basically for free and grow the US economy, but you are still taking from a pie. A Chinese pie is still a pie.
Can you solve hunger in Africa simply by having more people there? Or do you need something else from some other pie?
Yes, but people are not productive for free, so you need to take money from somewhere else in the pie to get the new something of value.
We are talking about different things, monetary theory is highly misunderstood and often maligned on this forum but the short of it is no there isn't a fixed amount of money and modern monetary policy scales the money supply to the value in the market. Since that value has nearly always gone up so does the amount of money. Our tools (economics) are imprecise though so it's generally not a perfect match hence inflation. It's better to get too much than too little though so they target a small amount of inflation rather than the equilibrium.
You can solve hunger in Africa if the people there were more productive growing food than their cost in eating it. Because most of them are a net loss on the equation doesn't mean that what they do isn't worthless it's just worth less than break even. The best policies for reducing poverty and hunger in Africa are those that help them be more productive farmers, not ones that dump food on them. The former you increase overall value, and you make a larger pie so to speak in the future because now African farmers are making more of value while the latter just dumping food is a transfer and at best a break even value (and really a loss due to transport/distribution costs) proposition as nothing is being added just moved.
How much do you value a Hornus Wagner rookie card at? If you owned it what would be the minimum price you would sell it for? If someone else values it higher and buys it from you for more than you wanted but less than he wanted are you both not holding something more valuable after the transaction than before?
I value it 5 cents since I have never heard of that dude. Does he play baseball? But I would be an imbecile if I sold it for 10 cents and would definitely not be holding something more valuable after the transaction than before. Instead I would google it and find out what is the market (American card collectors) willing to pay.
The whole point I am trying to make is about inflation-free wealth. Inflation affects money and currency, not actual wealth.
This is incorrect, as written. If you mean that wealth does not influence inflation, you are correct (the static amount, that is, and its distribution -- the rate of wealth accumulation does vary with inflation). If you mean that inflation does not affect wealth, you are entirely wrong.
Wealth is measured in monetary terms, there is no other way to measure it. Therefore, the value of any store of wealth declines relative to the rate of inflation (except gold,discussed below, and a few other odd commodities, like diamonds). That's the "floor" on interest rates at any moment, the rate of return on an investment necessary to offset inflation independent of other forms of risk. When inflation rises, interest rates (if the Fed does nothing) will rise to compensate the owner of capital for the decline in the value of the investment over time -- this is called the "financial risk" component of the interest rate.
Some forms of wealth-retention have intrinsic value, gold being the usual example since it is actively traded and viewed as the most secure store of wealth because of its universal and historical intrinsic value. That is why wealth moves to investments like gold in periods of high inflation. Even the value of gold is subject to inflation, but it's price tends to rise with inflation, because rising inflation increases the demand for gold and more than offsets the decline in value due to inflation. It also is affected by supply of the commodity, however, so it isn't a perfect reflection of inflation.
Your cracker example only works within what economists call the "Robinson Crusoe" paradigm, a money-free model which is useful for simplifying micro-economic issues, but doesn't work when generalized to an economy where money must be used as a store of value and medium of exchange. Yes, the food-value, it's intrinsic value, is unaffected by the price and therefore is not subject to inflation. But it's value as wealth, as a savings instrument for storing value, is affected because it is only measurable in monetary terms.
The only way to translate that idea back to the intrinsic value model is to note that you can't eat but so many crackers. If you can't trade what's left for something else of nutritional value that you need, like apples, the remainder is worthless, not a store of value at all. As soon as you enter into bartering, the value of the crackers is established, at any moment, by the number of apples you can get in exchange. In this world, value is entirely relative to supply and demand, there is no inflation and your "wealth" of excess crackers (ignoring the problem of perishability) is static if the supply and demand for apples and crackers remains unchanged.
Once you have multiple products traded in multiple markets it becomes more and more difficult to have efficiency (clearing of all markets without surplus or shortage) unless you have a universal store of value and medium of exchange (money) -- not going to go into why for now.
Money has a defined value at any moment relative to the goods and services within the economy. It's value changes based on the same supply and demand factors as any good. Increase the supply of money without an increase in the overall supply of goods (gross domestic product) and you have inflation. Increase the gross domestic product (an increase in productivity) without a corresponding increase in the supply of money, and you have deflation.
Any accumulated wealth is stored in some form: commodities, financial instruments, or cash. The value of all of these is measured in monetary terms, so the value of the wealth stored declines with inflation and increases with deflation. If store in commodities, the intrinsic value of the commodity doesn't change, but from the standpoint of the saver that's of no interest; they don't intend to consume that wealth.
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